Energy Conservation and Audit
Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions
Program: Diploma in Electrical engineering Program Code:- EE Scheme:-I Semester:- 5
Course:- Energy Conservation Course Code:- 22525
{tocify} $title={Unit Wise MCQs with Answers}
01 – Basic of energy conservation Marks:-08
Content of Chapter:-
1.1 Energy scenario, Types of energy source.
1.2 Energy conservation & energy audit concept difference. Energy conservation act 2001.
1.3 BEE and its role
1.4 MEDA and its role
1.5 Star labeling : Need and its benefit
(1)The modal agency for coordinating the energy conservation activities under EC act in India is....
(A) bureau of Indian standards (b) bureau of energy efficiency
(c) Bureau of energy education (d) bureau of energy and environment
Ans - b) bureau of energy efficiency
(2)The object of energy management is....
(a) To minimize energy cost (b) to minimize environmental effects
(c) A & c (d) none of the above
Ans- (c) A & c
(3)Which of the following is used to represent energy balance of a system?
(a) Snaky diagram (b) flow chart
(c) Single lines diagram (d) block diagram
Ans-(a) Snaky diagram
(4)Energy available in fuel is stored as...
(a) Heat energy (b) chemical energy
(c) Atomic energy (d) explosive energy
Ans-(b) chemical energy
(5)Which one is the key element for successful energy management?
(A) Top management support (b) planning
(c) Monitoring (d) training
Ans- b) planning
(6)The essential element of monitoring and targeting system is...
(a) Recording (b) reporting
(c) Controlling (d) all the above
Ans- (d) all the above
(7)”The judicious and effective of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive position
“this can be the definition of
(A) Energy conservation (b) energy management
(c) Energy policy (d) energy audit
Ans- b) energy management
(8) The objective of energy management includes
(a) Minimising energy costs (b) minimising waste
(c) Minimising environmental de graduation (d) all the above
Ans-(d) all the above
(09)Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario ?
(a)oil (b)natural gas
(c)coal (d)nuclear
Ans- d)nuclear
(10)Indian per capita energy consumption is........... of the world average.
(a)4% (b)20%
(c)1% (d)10%
Ans- b)20%
(11)Providing information to BEE is the role of energy manager a per
(a)energy conservation act 2003 (b) energy conservation act 2004
(c) energy conservation act 2002 (d)energy conservation act 2001
Ans- d) energy conservation act 2001
(12) Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Coal (b) Forests
(c) Water (d) Oil
Ans- b) Forests
(13)The energy sources that are either found or stored in nature are
a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
Ans- b) Primary Energy Sources
(14) Natural Gas contains ?
a) 95-99% methane b) 95-99% Ethane
c) methane & ethane mix d) None
Ans- a) 95-99% methane
(15) Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
Ans- b) renewable Energy
(16)The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year
rate of use, is called
a) Energy Utilization b) Energy Performance
c) Energy Efficiency d) None
Ans- a) Energy Efficiency
(17) The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be
a) Easy to carry b) Easy to operate
c) Inexpensive d) All (a) to (c)
Ans: d) All (a) to (c)
(18) Which of the following is commercial energy source?
a) Electricity b) Coal
c) Oil d) All the above
Ans- d) All (a) to (c)
(19) Inexhaustible energy sources are known as
a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy d) secondary energy
Ans- b) renewable Energy
(20)Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as:
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensity
c) Per capita consumption d) None
Ans- b) Energy intensity
(21)The Act which has been enacted to provide for efficient use of energy and its conservation and
for matters connected there with is?
a) Indian Electricity Act 2003 b) Energy Conservation Act 2001
c) Indian Electricity Act 2005 d) Indian Electricity Act 2003
Ans- b) Energy Conservation Act 2001
(22) Which of the following is an example of Renewable Energy source?
a)Coal b) Petrol
c) LPG d) Wind
Ans a) Coal
(23) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed implies
a) Energy is converted from one form to another form b) Energy is created only by burning fuel
c) Energy is converted from one form to other d) Energy is only available in form of heat.
Ans- a) Energy is converted from one form to another form
(24)Coal is a fossil fuel and it cannot be created in a laboratory or industry because the formation of
coal:
a) Is a very slow process b) needs very low pressure and temperature
c) causes air pollution d) needs very high pressure and temperature
Ans- c) causes air pollution
(25) B.E.E stands for
(a) Board of energy efficiency (b) Bureau of energy efficiency
(c) Branch of energy efficiency (d) None of these
Ans- b) Bureau of energy efficiency
(26) Salient feature of Energy Conservation Act 2001 is
(a) establishment of BEE (b) to prescribe energy conservation building codes for all buildings
(c) to specify energy consumption standard (d) both (a) & (c)
Ans-(d) both (a) & (c)
(27) The Act which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the electricity sector is
(a) Regulatory Commission Act b) Indian Electricity Act, 1910
(c) Electricity Act, 2003 (d) Supply Act, 1948
Ans- c) Electricity Act, 2003
(28)Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?
(a) Highly polluting (b) High waste disposal cost
(c) Unreliable supply (d) High running cost
Ans- c) Electricity Act, 2003
02 – Energy Conservation In Electrical Machines Marks:-014
Content of Chapter:-
2.1 Need of energy conservation in induction motor & transformer.
2.2 Energy conservation technique in induction motor.
2.3 Energy conservation technique transformer
2.4 Energy conservation equipment
2.5 Energy efficient motor
2.6 Energy efficient transformer
1. Maximum demand controller is used to ___________.
a) Switch off essential loads in a logical sequence
b) Exceed the demand of the plant
c) Switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence
d) Controls the power factor of the plant
Ans- c) Switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence
2. Capacitors with automatic power factor controller when installed in a plant:
a) Reduces active power drawn from grid
b) Reduces the reactive power drawn from grid
c) Reduces the voltage of the plant
d) Increases the load current of the plant
Ans- b) Reduces the reactive power drawn from grid
3. _________ controls the power factor of the installation by giving signals to switch on or off
power factor correction capacitors.
a) KVAR
b) Automatic power factor control relay
c) Intelligent power factor controller
d) Maximum demand controller
Ans- b) Automatic power factor control relay
4. ________ determines the rating of capacitance connected in each step during the first hour
of its operation and stores them in memory.
a) Maximum demand controller
b) Intelligent power factor controller
c) Automatic power factor controller
d) KVAR
Ans- b) Automatic power factor control relay
5. Energy efficient transformer core is made up of ______.
a) Silicon alloyed iron (grain oriented)
b) Copper
c) Amorphous core - metallic glass alloy
d) none of the above
Ans- c) Amorphous core - metallic glass alloy
6. The basic functions of electronic ballast exclude one of the following:
a) to ignite the lamp
b) to stabilize the gas discharge
c) to reduce lumen output of the lamp
d) all of these
Ans- d) all of these
7. Select the application of fluid coupling fitting from the following:
a) acts as a voltage limiter
b) enables no-load start-up of prime-mover
c) works on the principle of eddy current
d) none of the above
Ans- b) enables no-load start-up of prime-mover
8. The characteristic of conventional ballast in lighting application is one among the following:
a) They have low operational losses than electronic ballasts.
b) They have tuned circuit to deliver power at 25 Hz
c) They do not require a mechanical switch (starter)
d) They have high operational losses and high temperature rise
Ans- a) They have low operational losses than electronic ballasts.
9. Application of occupancy sensors is well suited for ___.
a) day light based controllers
b) night based controllers
c) light controllers
d) movement or noise detector in room space
Ans- c) light controllers
10. The following function cannot be achieved with automatic power factor controllers.
a) Voltage control
b) KILOVAR control
c) kW control
d) PF control
Ans- c) kW control
11. State whether the two statements are True or False?
The following features apply to energy efficient motors by design:
a) Energy efficient motors last longer
b) Starting torque for efficient motors may be lower than for standard motors
Ans- True
12. Eddy current drive can be a retrofit for ________.
a) Constant speed system requirement
b) Variable speed system requirement
c) Dual speed system requirement only
d) None of the above
Ans- b) Variable speed system requirement
13. Electronic variable frequency drive (VFD) connected to motors:
a) Provide variable speed with high efficiency
b) induces eddy-current in the secondary member of the clutch mechanism
c) is not suitable for variable torque load
d) Does not provide variable speed and has low-efficiency
Ans- a) Provide variable speed with high efficiency
14. Variable speed cannot be obtained with ____.
a) DC motors controller
b) AC motor controller
c) Soft starter controller
d) AC & DC controllers
Ans- c) Soft starter controller
15. Energy savings potential of variable torque applications compared to constant torque
application is:
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) None of the above
Ans- a) Higher
16. Electronic soft starters are used for motors to:
a) achieve variable speed
b) provide smooth start and stop
c) improve the loading
d) none of the above
Ans- b) provide smooth start and stop
17. Energy efficient lighting can be planned by using the following retrofits. – State True or
False
a) photo-sensor
b) timer
c) occupancy sensor
d) localized switching
Ans- c) occupancy sensor
18. What is power factor?
a) kw/kva
b) kw/kvar
c) kva/kvar
d) none of above
Ans-(a) kw/kva
19. What is unit of illumination?
a) lux
b) candle power
c)lumen
d)lumens/watt
Ans-a) lux
20. Which one the factors affecting motor performance?
a) efficiency
b) nature of load
c) i/p supply
d) losses
Ans- d) losses
21. Which method is used to PF?
a)Swinburne test
b)direct loading test
c)using static capacitor test
d)all of these
Ans- c) using static capacitor test
22. What is unit of active power?
a) kw
b)volt
c)kva
d)kvar
Ans- (a) kw
23. Give the wattage & lumen for T8 tube.
a) 40/2450
b) 36/3250
c) 28/2900
d) 24/2550
Ans- a) 40/2450
24. What is full form of VFD.
a) voltage frequency drive
b) variable fan drive
c) voltage fan drive
d)variable frequency drive
Ans- d)variable frequency drive
25. Which types of lamp saves maximum power?
a) CFL
b) carbon filament
c) neon lamp
d)LED
Ans- d
26. Which motor is more efficient?
a) universal motor
b) induction motor
c) E.E.M
d)D.C motor
Ans- c) EEM
27. What is the general life hours of 5 to 23 w CFL in hour?
a) 5000
b) 10000
c) 2000
d) 1000
Ans- a) 5000 hour
28. In a transformer, the magnitude of the mutual flux is
a) High at low loads and low at high loads
b) Low at low loads and low at high loads
c) Varies at low loads and constant at high loads
d) Same at all loads
Ans: d) Same at all loads
29. Use of higher flux density in trans-former design
a) Increases the weight per kW
b) Increases the weight per kVA
c) Decreases the weight per kVA
d) Decreases the weight per kW
Ans: c) Decreases the weight per kVA
30. The efficiency of transformer compared with that of electric motors of the same rating is
a) About the same
b) Much higher
c) Much smaller
d) Slightly higher
Ans: b) Much higher
31. Distribution transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at about
a) Full load
b) No load
c) 50% of full load
d) 75% of full load
Ans: d) 75% of full load
32. Use of silicon steel for laminations in a transformer reduces
a) Eddy current losses
b) Hysteresis losses
c) Both eddy current and hysteresis losses
d) Noise generated in the transformer
Ans: a) Eddy current losses
03 – Energy Conservation In Electrical installation system
Marks:-014
Content of Chapter:-
3.1 Aggregated Technical Commercial Losses At State National Level.
3.2 Technical Losses Causes Measure To Reduce By Various Method.
3.3 Commercial Losses Losses Causes Measure To Reduce By Various Method.
3.4energy Conservation Equipment.
3.5 Energy Conservation In Lighting System.
3.6 Energy Conservation Technique In Fan
1. Wavelength for blue color
(A) 4400 A
(B) 5250 A
(C) 6150 A
(D) 5950 A.
Ans -4400 A
2. Radio interference from a fluorescent lamp can be reduced by
(A) putting two lamps in parallel
(B) eliminating choke
(C) putting a capacitor across the lamp
(D) none of the above.
Ans- c) Putting a capacitor across the lamp
3. Dimming systems for lights are used in
(A) theatres
(B) auditoriums
(C) ball room
(D) all of the above.
Ans-d) all of the above.
4. Which of the following can be used as a light dimming device ?
(A) Auto transformer
(B) Variable reaction
(C) SCR
(D) Any of the above.
Ans-(D) Any of the above.
5. Which of the following is difficult to adopt for dimming ?
(A) GLS lamps
(B) Cold cathode lamps
(C) Fluorescent lamps
(D) All of the above.
Ans-(D) Any of the above.
6. Heat from light source is particularly of importance while
(A) designing for illumination level
(B) designing for floor space utilization
(C) designing for air conditioning
(D) all of the above
Ans-(C) designing for air conditioning
7. In electric discharge lamps for stablizing the arc
(A) a condenser is connected in parallel to supply
(B) a condenser is connected in series to supply
(C) a variable resistor is connected in the circuit
(D) a reactive choke is connected in series with supply.
Ans -(C) a variable resistor is connected in the circuit
8. The lens of the eye to focuses an image on the
(A) corona
(B) membrane
(C) calorie
(D) retina.
Ans-(D) retina.
9. The sensors in the eye arc known as
(A) rods and cones
(B) wires and nerves
(C) retina and antenna
(D) high and low.
Ans- (C) retina and antenna
10. Standard wattage of 3 ft. fluorescent tube is
(A) 10 W
(B) 40 W
(C) 65 W
(D) 100 W.
Ans-(B) 40 W
11. For the same wastage which lamp is cheapest ?
(A) Sodium vapor lamp
(B) Mercury vapor lamp
(C) Fluorescent tube
(D) GLS lamps.
Ans-(D) GLS lamps
12. Optical instruments used for the comparison of candle powers of different sources arc known
as
(A) Candle meters
(B) Radio meters
(C) Bunsen meter
(D) Pho
Ans- (D) GLS lamps to meter
13. Which photometer is used for comparing the lights of different colors ?
(A) Bunson photometer
(B) Grease spot photometer
(C) Lummer Brodhum photometer
(D) Guilds Flicker Photometer.
Ans - (C) Lummer Brodhum photometer
14. Which photometer depends for its operation on Lambert's cosine law?
(A) Macbeth lllumino meter
(B) Trotter Illumination Photometer
(C) Lummer Brodhum Photometer
(C) Guild's Flicker Photometer.
Ans- (C) Guild's Flicker Photometer.
15. Which photometer depends for its operation on Inverse Square Law?
(A) Guilds Flicker Photometer
(B) Lummer Brodhum Photometer
(C) Macbeth llluminometer
(D) Trotter Illumination Photometer.
Answer -(C) Macbeth llluminometer
16. The color temperature of day light is around
(A) 50 K
(B) 160 K
(C) 600 K
(D) 6000 K.
Answer-(D) 6000 K.
17. Light is produced in electric discharge lamps by
(A) heating effect of current
(B) magnetic effect of current
(C) ionization in a gas or vapor
(D) carbon electrodes.
Answer- (C) ionization in a gas or vapor
18. Lumen/watt is the unit of
(A) Light flux
(B) Luminous intensity
(C) Brightness
(D) Luminous efficiency.
Answer- (D) Luminous efficiency.
9. Candela is-the unit for
(A) Light flux
(B) Luminous intensity
(C) Brightness
(D) Luminous efficiency.
Answer-(B) Luminous intensity
20. Which gas is sometimes used in filament lamps ?
(A) Argon
(B) Krypton
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Answer- (A) Argon
21. Which bulb operates on lowest power ?
(A) Night bulb
(B) Neon bulb
(C) GLS bulb
(D) Torch bulb.
Answer- (D) Torch bulb.
22. The output of a tungsten filament lamp depends on
(A) size of lamp
(B) size of shell
(C) temperature of filament
(D) all of the above.
Answer-(C) temperature of filament
23. A zero watt lamp consumes
(A) no power
(B) about 5 to 7 W power
(C) about 15 to W power
(D) about 25 to 30 W power
Answer-(B) about 5 to 7 W power
24.Melting temperature of tungsten is
(A) 2000°K
(B) 2500°K
(C)2655°K
(D) 3655°K.
Answer-(D) 3655°K.
04 – Energy Conservation In Cogeneration & tariff
Marks:-014 Content of Chapter:-
4.1. Cogeneration and tariff concept significance for energy conservation.
4.2. Cogeneration
a) Types of cogeneration on basis of sequence of energy use.
b) Types of cogeneration on basis of technology.
c) Factor governing selection of cogeneration system.
d) Advantages of cogeneration.
4.3 .Types of tariff structure.
4.4 .Application of tariff system to reduce energy bill
Q1. What is the difference between two part tariff and maximum demand tariff?
a. A separate meter is used.
b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
c. Semi fixed charges are also included.
d. All of these
ANSWER: b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
Q2. This tariff is applied for which kind of consumers?
a. Big consumers.
b. Small consumers.
c. Residential consumers.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: a. Big consumers.
Q3. Why is this tariff not applicable to domestic consumers?
a. Low maximum demand.
b. Low load factor.
c. Lower energy consumption.
d. Low power factor.
ANSWER: a. Low maximum demand.
Q4. Why is a big consumer charged at a lower rate than the small consumer?
a. Their maximum demand is small.
b. It improves the load factor.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. It improves the load factor.
Q5. What is the power factor tariff?
a. It considers only maximum demand.
b. It considers only semi fixed charges and the power factor.
c. It considers only power factor.
d. It considers the load factor.
ANSWER: c. It considers only power factor.
Q6. What is consequence of low power factor?
a. Increases the rating of station equipments only.
b. Only line losses increases.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. Neither of these.
ANSWER: c. Both (a) and (b).
Q7. A consumer having lower power factor contributes towards which factor?
a. Semi fixed charges.
b. Fixed charges.
c. Running charges.
d. Penalty is imposed.
ANSWER: b. Fixed charges.
Q8. Which tariff is also known as the average power factor tariff?
a. Sliding scale tariff.
b. kW tariff.
c. kVAR tariff.
d. kVA maximum demand tariff.
ANSWER: a. Sliding scale tariff.
Q9. What is maximum value of power factor?
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 1.5
d. 0.95
ANSWER: b. 1
Q10. Active power and apparent power are respectively represented by?
a. kW and kVAR
b. kVAR and kVA
c. kVA and kVAR
d. kW and kVA
ANSWER: d. kW and kVA
Q11. Which among the following happens in a low power factor?
a. Large kVA rating of the equipment.
b. Greater conductor size.
c. Reduced handling capacity of the system.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d. All of the above.
Q12. Lower power factor is usually not due to
a. Discharge lamp.
b. Arc lamps.
c. Incandescent lamps.
d. Induction furnace.
ANSWER: c. Incandescent lamps.
Q13. For a consumer what is the most economical power factor?
a. 0.25 – 0.5 lagging
b. 0.25 – 0.5 leading.
c. 0.85 – 0.95 lagging.
d. 0.85 – 0.95 leading.
ANSWER: c. 0.85 – 0.95 lagging.
Q14. The primary reason for the low power factor is due to the installation of
a. Induction motors
b. DC motors
c. Synchronous motors.
d. Commutator motors.
ANSWER: a. Induction motors
Q15. For which among the following consumers is penalty imposed for low power factor?
a. Residential and commercial consumers.
b. Industrial consumers.
c. Agricultural consumers.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: b. Industrial consumers.
Q16. Power factor can be improved by connecting which among these?
a. Static capacitors.
b. Resistors.
c. Synchronous condensers.
d. Both (a) and (c).
ANSWER: d. Both (a) and (c).
Q17. What is the advantage of the static capacitors?
a. Low losses.
b. Easy installation.
c. Lower maintenance.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d. All of the above.
Q18. Which among these is the advantage of synchronous condensers?
a. Helps in achieving the stepless control of power factor.
b. The motor windings have a lower thermal stability.
c. The maintenance cost is low.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: a. Helps in achieving the stepless control of power factor.
Q19. Phase advancers are used for which among the following machines?
a. Transformers
b. Synchronous machines.
c. Induction motors.
d. DC machines.
ANSWER: c. Induction motors.
Q20. What is the main disadvantage of phase advancers?
a. Cannot be used for motors below 200 H.P
b. Produces noise.
c. Can be used where synchronous motor is un admissible.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: a. Cannot be used for motors below 200 H.P
Q21. The most suitable location for the power factor improvement device is
a. Near the electrical appliance which is responsible for the poor power factor.
b. At the sending end.
c. At the receiving end in case of transmission lines.
d. Both (a) and (c).
ANSWER: d. Both (a) and (c)
Q 22. Which of following is correct statement about Simple tariff?
a) Has no discrimination of consumers
b) Charges more to commercial users
c) Enoourages use of electricity
d) Is most commonly used tariff method
ANSWER: Has no discrimination of consumers
Q 23 The tariff in which power factor is taken as reference:
a. Sliding scale tariff
b. kVA maximum demand tariff
c. kW and kVAR tariff
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Q 24. Two part tariff is charged on what basis?
a. Connected load
b. Units consumed.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Both (b) and (c).
ANSWER: d. Both (b) and (c).
Q 25. Fixed charge is dependent on what factor?
a. Energy consumption
b. Maximum demand
c. Peak load demand
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Maximum demand
Q 26. A variable charge is based on what?
a. Energy consumption
b. Maximum demand
c. Peak load demand
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: a. Energy consumption
Q27. What is the main disadvantage of two port tariff?
a. He has to pay semi fixed charges.
b. He has to pay fixed charges.
c. He has to pay running charges.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: b. He has to pay fixed charges.
Q 28. What all are included in the three part tariff?
i. Fixed charges
ii. Running charges
iii. Semi fixed charges.
a. i, ii and iii
b. i and ii
c. i and iii
d. ii and iii.
ANSWER: a. i, ii and iii
Q 29. The most ideal tariff for the consumer is which tariff?
a. Two part tariff.
b. Three part tariff.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: b. Three part tariff.
Q 30. What is the difference between two part tariff and maximum demand tariff?
a. A separate meter is used.
b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
c. Semi fixed charges are also included.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
Q 31. This tariff is applied for which kind of consumers?
a. Big consumers.
b. Small consumers.
c. Residential consumers.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: a. Big consumers.
Q32. Why is this tariff not applicable to domestic consumers?
a. Low maximum demand.
b. Low load factor.
c. Lower energy consumption.
d. Low power factor.
ANSWER: a. Low maximum demand.
05 – Energy audit Marks(Assignment):-08
Content of Chapter:-
5.1 Energy audit,Specific energy consumption
5.2 Energy audit instrument & their use
5.3Questionnaire for energy audit project
5.4 Energy flow diagram
5.5 simple pay back period,Energy audit procedure
5.6 Energy audit report format
1) Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas? (EA)
a) Combustion analyzer
b) Power analyzer
c) Pyrometer
d) Fyrite
2) Lux meter is used to measure......
a) Illumination level
b) Sound intensity and illumination level
c) Harmonics
d) Speed
3) For a cement plant the parameter, “kWh/MT of clinker “indicates
a) Energy Index parameter
b) Utility factor
c) Production factor
d) Load factor
4) Energy manger should be well versed with
a) Manufacturing and processing skills
b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills
d) Managerial and commercial skills
5) An energy policy does not include
a) Target energy consumption reduction
b) Time period for reduction
c) Declaration of top management commitment
d) Future production projection
6) CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on
a) Weight basis (dry)
b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet)
d) Volume basis (wet)
7) Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) Tachometer
b) Stroboscope
c) Oscilloscope
d) Speedometer
8) The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for improvement in
Energy management and audit is
a) Fuel substitution
b) Monitoring and verification
c) Energy pricing
d) Bench marking
09) Infrared thermometer is used to measure
a) Surface temperature
b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature
d) Hot water temperature
10) The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be
a) Easy to carry
b) Easy to operate
c) Inexpensive
d) All (a) to (c)
11) Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using and manometer
a) Orifice meter
b) Borden gauge
c) Pitot tube
d) Anemometer
12) An energy audit team is formed during
a) post audit phase
b) audit phase
c) pre-audit phase
d) the time of study
13) Which of the following is not part of energy monitoring
a) data recording
b) data analysis
c) data reporting
d) energy efficiency equipment financing
14 )Simple payback period is equal to..
a. ratio of first cost/net yearly savings
b. ratio of annual gross cash flow/capital cost
c. none of above
d. all of above
(15) Simple payback period for energy efficiency motor that costs Rs.1.5lakh to purchase and install
and is expected to save Rs.0.75lakh per annual is..
a. 1.1 years
b. 2 years
c. 0.75 years
d. 2.25 years
(16)The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in in a
plant was Rs.5lakh the net annual cash flow is Rs.1.25lakh return on investment
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 19.35%
(17)The sum of present values of all the cash flows associated with it is called..................
a. return on investment
b. internal rate of return
c. net present value
d. none of the above
(18)ROI must always be ............... than interest rate
a. lower
b. higher
c. equal
d. no relation
(19)Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project are..
a. variable cost
b. capitol cost
c. salvage value
d. none
(20 )For calculation plant energy performance which of the following data is not required
a. current year’s production
b. reference year’s production
c. reference year’s energy use
d. capacity utilization
(21) For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over is project life which of these analysis
would be the best option ...
a) payback
b) NPV
c) ROI
d) IRR
(22) Which of the following is not an external source of fund
a. bank loans
b. leasing arrangement
c. revenue budget
d. private finance
(23)Which of the following is used to represent energy balance of a system?
a. Snaky diagram
b. flow chart
c. Single lines diagram
d. block diagram
(24)The essential element of monitoring and targeting system is...
a. Recording
b. reporting
c. Controlling
d. all the above
(25)Which one is the key element for successful energy management?
a. Top management support
b. planning
c. Monitoring
d. training