Basic Science Physics Solved MCQs MSBTE First Year Exam Mcqs


22102 Basic Science Physics Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions

MSBTE Basic Science physics Solved MCQs with Explaination 2021


Program: Diploma in Engineering (All Branches)

Program Code:- CE/CO/EE/EJ/ME

Scheme:- I

Semester:- 1

Course:- Basic Physics

Course Code:- 22102


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 01 – Units and Measurement


1.   The physical quantities which don’t depend on any other quantities for its measurement are called
(A)   Fundamental physical quantities         
(B) Derived physical quantities
(C) Mathematical quantities                   
(D) chemical quantities

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- These are the basic (fundamental) quantities that define themselves.

 

2.   Electric current, thermodynamic temperature, Amount of substance, luminous intensity are    quantities

(A)   Fundamental physical quantities         

(B) Derived physical quantities

(C) Mathematical quantities                     

(D) chemical quantities


Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- These are the basic (fundamental) quantities that define themselves

 3.   The length of the table is 3 meter, here 3 is the

(A)   Standard                 

(B) unit

(C) Magnitude                                    

(D) quantity


Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- In the measurement of a physical quantity, the numerical part implies the quantity and the alphabetical one implies the unit of the quantity measured.

4.   Which of the following units is a derived unit?

(A)   second                        

(B) meter

(C) ampere                                      

(D) meter / second square

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- The unit depends on two fundamental units: meter, second.

5.   Dimensional formula for ‘area’ is

(A) [L2M0T0]                                        

(B) [L2M-1T0]

(C) [L0M2T1]                                        

(D) [L0M0T2]

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Area = Length x Length = [L x L] = [L2]

6. For less error, measurement is

(A)   More accurate                                

(B) less accurate

(C) Constant accurate                           (D) both (a) and (b)

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- As error decreases, the measurement gets more and more accurate.

 7. There are 20 divisions in 4 cm of the main scale. The vernier scale has 10 divisions. The least count of the instrument is

(A) 2.0 cm                                        

(B) 0.2 cm

(C) 0.02 cm                                      

(D) 0.002 cm

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- L. C. of vernier calipers 

7. .   1 nanometer equals to       

(A) 10-3m                                        

(B) 10-12m

(C) 10-6m  

(D) 10-9m

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- nano = 10-9

 8.   The errors due to sudden changes in experimental conditions are called

(A)   Instrumental errors                          

(B) systematic errors

(C) Random errors                              

(D) force errors


Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Errors due to sudden change in experimental conditions are called random errors (as name suggests)

 9.       To measure shorter lengths with their accurate reading we use

(A)   Measuring tapes                             

(B) meter ruler

(C) Vernier calliper                              

(D) all of them


Answer:- Option c

Explanation:- Vernier caliper has least error and high accuracy than others.

 10.       The physical quantity having the same unit in all the systems of unit is

(A)   Length                                      

(B) time

(C) Mass                                          

(D) foot

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Time has same unit in all the systems i.e. second.


13. Which of the following numerical value have significant figure 4?

(A) 1.011 (B) 0.010

(C) 0.001 (D) 0.100

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- One zero before 1 in option B and 2 zeroes before 1 in option C are non-significant. Hence, option B and option C have 2 and 1 significant figures respectively. Option D has 3 significant figures. All the 4 figures in option A are significant.


14. The significant figures in 500.5000 are

(A) 5 (B) 3

(C) 7 (D) 6

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Starting from left, all the zeroes to the right of a nonzero digit and to the left of decimal point are significant. Hence, first 2 zeroes are significant. All the trailing zeroes in a decimal number are significant. Hence, next 3 zeroes are significant. All the non-zero digits are significant. Hence, both 5s are significant.


15. The ratio of average absolute error to mean reading is called

(A) Average absolute error (B) Absolute error

(C) Relative error (D) Relative error

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The ratio of average absolute error to mean reading is called relative error.


16. The digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 are

(A) Not significant (B) Sometimes Significant

(C) Always significant (D) All of the above

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- All non-zero digits are significant digits.


17. 200µF is equal to

(A) 200 x 10-9 F (B) 200 x 106 F

(C) 200 x 10-6 F (D) 200 x 109 F

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- µ = micro = 10-6


18. 65 cm is equal to

(A) 65 x 10-2 m (B) 65 x 10-3 m

(C) 65 x 10-4 m (D) 65 x 102 m

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- c = centi = 10-2


19. If distance between Mumbai to Pune by train is 90.5km, in this, zero is

(A) Not significant (B) Significant

(C) May be significant (D) May not be significant

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- All the zeroes to the right of a nonzero digit and to the left of decimal point are significant.

 

20. The number of significant figure in measurement of 2.34 X 1011

(A) 11 (B) 14

(C) 2 (D) 3

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- 2, 3, 4 are significant. 1011 is not significant.


21. The measured value of a resistance is 10.25 ohm, whereas its value of 10.22 ohm. What is absolute error of the measurement?

(A) 0.01 ohm (B) 0.03 ohm

(C) 15.36 ohm (D) 10.26 ohms

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Absolute error = measured value – actual value


22. The percentage error in the distance 100 + 5 cm is

(A) 5% (B) 95%

(C) 100% (D) 105%

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- + 5 cm is the additional measurement than the actual 100 cm.


23. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of

(A) Length and mass (B) mass and time

(C) Length, mass and time (D) none of these

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Temperature is fundamental (independent) quantity.


24. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good unit?

(A) It is invariable (B) It is reproducible

(C) It is perishable (D) It is easily available

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- It shall not be perishable (destructible).


25. A physical quantity consists of a

(A) Analogical Magnitude (B) Numerical magnitude

(C) Alphabetical Magnitude (D) Symbolic Magnitude

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Physical quantities are measurable ones. They have numerical values.


26. Km is used to measure

(A) Shorter distance (B) Toys

(C) Longer distances (D) bottles

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- K = kilo = 1000, meter is unit of length. Hence, longer distances - in the order of thousands of meters.

27. Sonya is tall. This observation is

(A) Quantitative (B) qualitative

(C) Both a and b (D) respective

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- qualitative observation doesn't involve measurements or numbers but instead characteristics.


28. On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can be found, is

 

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Four (D) Three

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- The number of unknowns that can be found for any physical quantity while performing the dimensional analysis will be the same as that of the number of the physical parameters being used for that particular physical quantity. We normally use three parameters i.e. length, mass and time.

29. Which one of the following is not a derived unit?

(A) Joule (B) Watt

(C) Kilogram (D) Newton

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Unit of a fundamental quantity, mass.


30. The dimensions of Kinetic energy is same as that of

(A) Force (B) Pressure

(C) Work (D) Momentum

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Energy required to do some work is numerically same as that of the work due to that energy. Hence, energy and work has same units and dimensions as well.


31. The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. In MKS system its value is

(A) 70 N/m (B) 7 x 10-2 N/m

(C) 7 x 102 N/m (D) 7 x 10-3 N/m

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- 1 dyne/cm = 10-3 N/m


32. How many dynes are there in 1 gram weight?

(A) 900 (B) 375

(C) 981 (D) 250

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- 1 gram weight = 1 x 981 dyne.


33. How many ergs are in 1 Joule?

(A) 102 (B) 104

(C) 106 (D) 107

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- 1J = 1N x 1m = 1 kg m/s2 x 1m = (1000g x 100cm/s2) x 100 cm = 107 g-cm2/s2 = 107 dyne


34. [L1M0T-1] are the dimensions of the quantity

(A) Acceleration (B) density

(C) Speed (D) area

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- [L1M0T-1] => the dimensional formula contains 1 power of L (length) and -1 power of T (time)

i.e. the quantity it represents have formula = length1 x time-1 = length / time, which is speed.


35. The SI unit of luminous intensity is

(A) ampere (B) flux

(C) candela (D) weber

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The SI unit of luminous intensity is candela

 

36. Which of the following is not a fundamental unit?

(A) meter (B) kilogram

(C) second (D) newton

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- newton is the unit of derived quantity, Force (depends on mass, length and time)


37. Length of table is 3 meter. In this example, 3 is the and meter is the of that quantity

(A) Magnitude, standard (B) number, Accuracy

(C) Standard, Magnitude (D) unit, Magnitude

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- In the measurement of a physical quantity, the numerical part implies the quantity (magnitude) and the alphabetical one implies the unit (standard) of the quantity measured.


38. Which of the following are supplementary physical quantities?

(A) Plane angle, solid angle (B) length, time

(C) mass, current (D) temperature, angle

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Plane angle and solid angle are supplementary physical quantities.


39. The unit of force in C.G.S. system is

(A) pound force (B) newton

(C) kg force (D) dyne

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- C.G.S. unit of force is dyne.


40. 0.1mm is accuracy of a

(A) Measuring tapes (B) meter ruler

(C) Vernier caliper (D) a and b

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The least count (L.C.) of the vernier caliper is 1/10th of mm = 0.1 mm


41. Is the branch of science deal with study of matter, energy and their transformation in nature

(A) physics (B) chemistry

(C) biology (D) math

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The branch of science deal with study of matter, energy and their transformation in nature is Physics


42. The physical quantities which don’t depend on any other quantities for its measurement are called ---

(A) fundamental physical quantities (B) Derived physical quantities

(C) mathematical quantities (D) chemical quantities

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The physical quantities which don’t depend on any other quantities for its measurement are called fundamental physical quantities


43. The physical quantities which depend on any other quantities for their measurement are called

(A) fundamental quantities (B) Derived physical quantities

(C) mathematical quantities (D) chemical quantities

Answer:- Option

Explanation:- The physical quantities which depend on any other quantities for their measurement are called Derived physical quantities.


44. The unit of a fundamental physical quantity is called

(A) fundamental unit (B) Derived unit

(C) magnitude (D) quantity

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The unit of fundamental physical quantity is called fundamental unit

45. The unit of derived physical quantity is called

(A) Derived unit (B) Fundamental unit

(C) Magnitude (D) Quantity

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The unit of Derived physical quantity is called Derived unit


46. Length, mass, time are quantities

(A) fundamental physical (B) derived physical

(C) mathematical quantities (D) chemical quantities

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Length, mass, time are fundamental physical quantities


47. Electric current, thermodynamic temperature, Amount of substance, luminous intensity are  quantities

(A) fundamental physical (B) derived physical

(C) mathematical quantities (D) chemical quantities

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Electric current, thermodynamic temperature, Amount of substance, luminous intensity are fundamental physical quantities


48. are supplementary physical quantities.

(A) Plane angle, solid angle (B) length, time

(C) mass, current (D) temperature, angle

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Plane angle and solid angle are supplementary physical quantities


49. Unit of mass in SI system is

(A) second (B) kilogram

(C) ampere (D) candela

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Unit of Mass in SI system is kilogram


50. Unit of Time in SI system is

(A) second (B) Kilogram

(C) ampere (D) candela

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Unit of Time in SI system is second


51. Unit of Electric current in SI system is

(A) Newton (B) Joule/s

(C) Kilogram- meter (D) ampere

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Unit of Electric current in SI system is ampere

 

52. Unit of thermodynamic temperature in SI system is

(A) newton (B) joule/s

(C) kelvin (D) ampere

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Unit of thermodynamic temperature in SI system is kelvin


53. Unit of Amount of substance in SI system is

(A) steradian (B) mole

(C) radian (D) degree

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Unit of Amount of substance in SI system is mole


54. Unit of luminous intensity in SI system is

(A) steradian (B) mole

(C) radian (D) candela

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Unit of luminous intensity in SI system is candela


55. Unit of Plane angle in SI system is

(A) steradian (B) mole

(C) radian (D) degree

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Unit of Plane angle in SI system is radian


56. Unit of solid angle in SI system is

(A) steradian (B) mole

(C) radian (D) degree

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Unit of solid angle in SI system is steradian


57. Unit of area in SI system is

(A) square meter (B) square foot

(C) square centimeter (D) acre

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Area = Length x Length Hence, unit of area = m x m = m2.


58. The quantity measured in kelvin is

(A) length (B) mass

(C) time (D) thermodynamic temperature

Answer:- Option

Explanation:- The quantity measured in kelvin is thermodynamic temperature.


59. The unit of acceleration in S.I. is

(A) km/h (B) m/s2

(C) m/s (D) km/h2

Answer:- Option B

            

60. The unit of force in C.G.S.is

(A) pound force (B) newton

(C) dyne (D) kg force

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The unit of force in C.G.S.is dyne


61. Out of the fallowing which is not a requirement of standard unit?

(A) it should be same for all quantities (B) it should be universally accepted

(C) it should be well defined (D) it should be fixed with time and place

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- It need not to be same for all quantities.


62. The used for measurement of physical quantity is called unit of that quantity.

(A) Quantity (B) dimension

(C) time (D) standard

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- The standard used for measurement of physical quantity is called unit of that quantity


63. A quantity which can be measured (computed, quantified or enumerated) is known as

(A) Fundamental quantity (B) derived quantity

(C) physical quantity (D) mechanical quantity

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- A quantity which can be measured (computed, quantified or enumerated) is known as physical quantity.


64. Length of table is 3 meter. In this example, 3 is the and meter is the of that quantity.

(A) Magnitude, standard (B) number, Accuracy

(C) standard, Magnitude (D) unit, Magnitude

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The numerical part in a measurement is called magnitude and the alphabetical part is unit or standard.


65. Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?

(A) mole (B) watt

(C) lumen (D) joule

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- mole is unit of a fundamental quantity named amount of substance.


66. Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?

(A) lumen (B) watt

(C) meter (D) joule

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- meter is unit of a fundamental quantity named length.


67. Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?

(A) joule (B) watt

(C) lumen (D) Kg

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Kg is unit of a fundamental quantity named mass.


68. Which of the following units is a fundamental unit?

(A) candela (B) watt

(C) lumen (D) newton

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- candela is unit of a fundamental quantity named luminous intensity.


69. Which of the following unit is a derived unit?

(A) meter (B) mole

(C) ampere (D) watt

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- watt is unit of a derived quantity named power.


70. Which of the following units is a derived unit?

(A) Kg (B) kelvin

(C) coulomb (D) second

Answer:- Option C


71. Which of the following units is a derived unit?

(A) meter (B) joule

(C) ampere (D) kelvin

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- joule is unit of a derived quantity named energy.


72. Which of the following units is a derived unit?

(A) meter (B) second

(C) kelvin (D) newton

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- newton is unit of a derived quantity named force.


73. Which of the following units is a derived unit?

(A) kelvin (B) radian

(C) ampere (D) kg-m/s2

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- kg-m/s2 is unit of a derived quantity named acceleration.


74. Out of the following the fundamental quantity is

(A) Density (B) pressure

(C) time (D) momentum

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Only time is the independent quantity.


74. pascal is the S.I. unit of

(A) Force (B) Pressure

(C) Density (D) Momentum

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Pascal is the S.I. unit of pressure.

 

75. MKS means

(A) micro-kg-sec (B) m-kg-s

(C) milli-kilo-s (D) micro-kilo-s

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- MKS means meter – kilogram – second.


76. The units of length, mass and time are centimeter, gram and second which are used in the  system.

(A) CGS (B) MKS

(C) FPS (D) SI

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The units of length, mass and time are centimeter, gram and second which are used in the CGS system.


77. 1 gigahertz (GHz) means Hz

(A) 106 (B) 1012

(C) 109 (D) 1015

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- giga (G) means 109


78. 1 millimeter means

(A) 10-7 m (B) 10-5 m

(C) 10-4 m (D) 10-3 m

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- milli = 10-3


79. 10-6 m means

(A) 1 mm (B) 1 cm

(C) 1 nm (D) 1 µm

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- µ = 10-6


80. [L1 M0 T-2] are the dimensions of the quantity

(A) acceleration (B) density

(C) speed (D) area

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Acceleration =                   

Hence, [Acceleration] = = = [L1 T-2] = [L1 M0 T-2]


81. Dimensions of and are same.

(A) pressure, stress (B) work, force

(C) velocity, acceleration (D) Length, mass

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Pressure and stress has same formula.


82. Error is in the given measurement

(A) mistake (B) accuracy

(C) uncertainty (D) certainty

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Error is the uncertainty in the given measurement

 

83. cannot be eliminated but they can be minimized

(A) errors (B) mistake

(C) accuracy (D) precision

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- errors cannot be eliminated but they can be minimized.


84. One MB is equal to ……

(A) 109 B (B) 106 B

(C) 1012 B (D) 103 B

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- mega (M) = 106


85. joule is the unit of

(A) Temperature (B) Pressure

(C) Impulse (D) Heat

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- joule is the unit of energy. Heat is a form of energy.


86. Electric current is measure by

(A) Commentator (B) Anemometer

(C) Ammeter (D) Voltmeter

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Electric current is measure by Ammeter


87. Kilowatt is a unit to measure

(A) Work (B) Power

(C) Electricity (D) Current

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- watt is a unit to measure pressure. And kilo is prefix to it.


88. The dimensions of density is

(A) [L3 M1 T0] (B) [L2 M1 T0]

(C) [L-3 M1 T-1] (D) [L-3 M1 T0]

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- [Density] =  [L-3 M1] = [L-3 M1 T0]

    

89. A single system on which all scientists all over the world agree for units of measurement is called

(A) SI units (B) International System of units

(C) both a and b (D) universal system

Answer:- Option

Explanation:- A single system on which all scientists all over the world agree for units of measurement is called SI units or International System of units.


90. In SI system unit for speed is written as

(A) meter (B) meter/sec

(C) meter/hour (D) km/sec

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- In SI system unit for speed is written as meter/sec


91. The dimensions of energy is

(A) [L-1 M1 T-2] (B) [L1 M1 T-2]

(C) [L2 M1 T-2] (D) [L2 M-1 T-2]

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- [Energy] = = = [L2 M1 T-2]


92. The errors due to sudden change in experimental conditions are called

(A) instrumental errors (B) systematic errors

(C) random errors (D) force errors

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The errors due to sudden change in experimental conditions are called random errors.


93. Requirement of good unit is …….

(A) Internationally accepted (B) Invariable

(C) Easily converted and reproducible (D) All of the above

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Option A, B and C all are the requirements of good unit.


94. Instrument which can be used to measure length includes

(A) measuring tapes (B) meter ruler

(C) Vernier caliper (D) all of them

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Measuring tapes, meter ruler, vernier caliper all are used to measure length.


95. A physical quantity consists of a

(A) Analogical Magnitude (B) Numerical magnitude

(C) Alphabetical Magnitude (D) Symbolic Magnitude

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- All physical quantities are measured in values which are expressed in numbers.


96. Dimensional formula of pressure is …..

(A) [L-1 M1 T-2] (B) [L-1 M1 T-1]

(C) [L1 M1 T-2] (D) [L-1 M0 T-2]

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- [Pressure] = = = [L-1 M1 T-2]


97. Minimum length an instrument can measure is called its

(A) accuracy (B) estimate

(C) precision (D) limitations

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Minimum length an instrument can measure is called its precision or Least Count.


98. Dimensional formula of momentum is …..

(A) [L-1 M1 T-1] (B) [L1 M1 T-1]

(C) [L1 M1 T-2] (D) [L-1 M1 T-2]

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- [Momentum] = = = [L1 M1 T-1]


99. The ratio of the mean absolute error in the measurement of physical quantity to mean value is called

(A) absolute error (B) relative error

(C) random error (D) experimental error

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- The ratio of the mean absolute error in the measurement of physical quantity to mean value is called relative error


02 – Electricity, Magnetism, and Semiconductors


1. The unit of electric field intensity is

(A) C/N (B) N/C

(C) NC (C) ohm/m

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Electric intensity = Force/Charge


2. When number of resistances are connected in series then effective resistance …..

(A) Decreases (B) Increases

(C) Remains same (D) none of these

Answer:- B

Explanation:- Series connection of resistors


3. Which of the following is acceptor impurity?

(A) Gallium (B) Antimony

(C) Arsenic (D) None of these

Answer:- A

Explanation:- Gallium is trivalent impurity.


4. Barrier potential for silicon is

(A) 0.7V (B) 0.3V

(C) 1.11V (D) None of these

Answer:- A

Explanation:- Barrier potential for silicon is 0.7V


5. The specific resistance of a wire 6 m in length, 0.4 mm in diameter and having a resistance of 30Ω

(A) 62.8 × 10-8 Ω-m (B) 6.28 × 10-7Ω-m

(C) Both A and C (D) None of these

Answer:- C                                                          


6. If two resistors are connected in series the which of the following parameter will remain same through each resistor

(A) Voltage (B) Resistance

(C) Current (D) None of these

Answer:- C

Explanation:- Series connection of resistors.


7. In P region of PN junction diode which of the following are majority carriers

(A) electrons (B) holes

(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- In P region of PN junction diode holes are majority carriers.


8. Electric potential is

(A) Vector quantity (B) Tensor

(C) None of these (D) Scalar quantity

Answer:-Option D

Explanation:- Electric potential is scalar quantity.


9. SI unit of magnetic flux is

(A) weber (B) ampere

(C) maxwell (D) volt

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- SI unit of magnetic flux is weber.


10. Relationship between Magnetic induction and Magnetic field intensity is

(A) B = µH (B) B = µ/H

(C) B = H2µ (D) None of these

Answer: Option A

Explanation:- B = µH


11. When body loses electrons it acquires

(A) Negative charge (B) Positive charge

(C) No charge (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- When body loses electrons it acquires positive charge.


12. SI unit of magnetic induction is

(A) tesla (B) weber/meter2

(C) both a and b (D) none of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:-SI unit of magnetic induction


13. Three resistors which are connected in series which are having resistances 10Ω each, the equivalent resistance is

(A) 30Ω (B) 3Ω

(C) 300Ω (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Req = R1 + R2 + R3 = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 Ω


14. In which combination of resistors equivalent resistance is maximum

(A) In series combination (B) In parallel combination

(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Series combination of resistors


15. SI unit of electromotive force (EMF) is

(A) volt (B) N

(C) none of these (D) Both (B) and (A)

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- SI unit of electromotive force (EMF) is volt.


16. A battery of emf 12 volt is connected across a resistance of 10 Ω the current flowing through the resistance is

(A) 1.2 Ω (B) 1.2 A

(C) 12 A (D) none of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- V = IR


17. Which of the following is semiconductor?

(A) Iron (B) Aluminum

(C) Germanium (D) none of these

Answer: Option C

Explanation:- Germanium is semiconductor.


18. In case of conductor band gap is

(A) 0 eV (B) greater than 5 eV

(C) 1.1 eV (D) none of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- For conductor band gap is 0 eV.


19. Valency of silicon is

(A) 4 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 0

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Valency of silicon is 4.


20. For semiconductors temperature coefficient of resistance is

(A) Negative (B) Positive

(C) both A and B (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- For semiconductors temperature coefficient of resistance is negative.


21. Magnetic intensity is

(A) Scalar (B) Vector

(C) Tensor (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Magnetic intensity is vector.


22. Which of the following is not a property of magnetic lines of force

(A) They start from north pole and end in south pole outside the magnet.

(B) They never intersect each other

(C) Magnetic lines of force are affected by non-magnetic material

(D) Magnetic lines of force form a closed loop.

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Properties of magnetic lines of force.


23. The resistance of conductor is inversely proportional to

(A) Area (B) Volume

(C) length (D) distance

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:-The resistance of conductor is inversely proportional to length.


24. The length and cross-sectional area of wire is halved. Its resistance will be …

(A) Halved (B) Doubled

(C) Unchanged (D) Four times

Answer:- Option C

Explanation :- Definition of resistivity.


25. When small amount of trivalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, is known as

(A) N-type semiconductor (B) P- type semiconductor

(C) donor as well as acceptor (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation :- Definition of P type semiconductor.


26. Rectifier is a device which converts

(A) AC to DC (B) DC to AC

(C) AC to AC (D) DC to DC

Answer:- Option A

Explanation :- Rectifier is device which converts AC to DC.


27. The dielectric constant of for air

(A) less than one (B) zero

(C) one (D) None of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation :- The dielectric constant for air is 1.


28. As distance between two electric charges decreases, the electrostatic force between them

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) remains constant (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation :- Coulombs law in electrostatics.


29. As distance between two electric charges decreases, the electrostatic force between them

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) remains constant (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation :- Coulombs law in electrostatics.


30. A battery of emf 6V is connected across a resistance of 12Ω, calculate the current flowing through the resistance.

(A) 72 A (B) 0.2 A

(C) 0.5A (D) 2A

Answer :- Option C

Explanation :- V = IR therefore I= 0.5A

 

31. Heat generated in a conductor carrying current depends on 

(A)Current (B)Resistance of conductor

(C)Time (D)All of these

Answer :- Option D

Explanation :- H = I2RT


32. An electron is placed in an electric field of intensity 1000N/C. Calculate the force acting on electron 

(A) 1.6 X 10-19 N (B) 1.6 X10-16 N

(C) 1.6X10-22 N (D) 0.65X 1022 N

Answer :- Option B

Explanation :- F = QE = 1.6 × 10-19 × 1000 = 1.6 ×10-16 N


33. The of energies possessed by is known as Valence band.

(A) Amount, electrons (B) range, atoms

(C) Value, atoms (D) range, Valence electrons

Answer:- Option D

Explanation :- The range of energies possessed by valence electrons is known as Valence band.


34. At 00K, pure Silicon acts as,

(A) Conductor (B) Insulator

(C) Semiconductor (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation :- At 0 K, pure Silicon acts as, insulator.


35. The border where P region meets with N region in a PN junction diode is known as,

(A) Junction (B) Border

(C) Boundary (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The border where P region meets with N region in a PN junction diode is known as, junction.


36. The leakage current in reverse bias diode is due to flow of

(A) majority carriers (B) minority carriers

(C) electrons only (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- The leakage current in reverse bias diode is due to flow of minority carriers.


37. The electrical resistance of PN junction diode is during forward bias

(A) Maximum (B) Minimum

(C) Doesn’t change (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- The electrical resistance of PN junction diode is minimum during forward bias.


38. Pure Silicon & Germanium is known as semiconductor.

(A) Extrinsic (B) Doped

(C) Intrinsic (D) None of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Pure Germanium and Silicon are intrinsic semiconductors.


39.Impurities form p-type semiconductor.

(A) Donor (B) Acceptor

(C) Both donor and acceptor (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation :- Acceptor impurities form p-type semiconductor.


40. The force of attraction or repulsion between two electric charges is known as,

(A) Electric force (B) Magnetic force

(C) Muscular force (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation :- The force of attraction or repulsion between two electric charges is electric force.


41. Dielectric constant of a medium w.r.t. vacuum is the

(A) ratio of permittivity of vacuum to permittivity of medium.

(B) ratio of permittivity of medium to permittivity of vacuum.

(C) product of permittivity of vacuum to permittivity of medium.

(D) None of these.

Answer:- Option B

Explanation :- Dielectric constant of a medium w.r.t. vacuum is the ratio of permittivity of medium to permittivity of vacuum.


42. The space around an electric charge in which force of attraction or repulsion is effective is known as,

(A) Electric field (B) Magnetic field

(C) Gravitational field (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Definition of electric field.


43. If four resistances of 1 Ω are connected in parallel and 1 Ω is connected in series with combination then what will be the effective resistance?

(A) 1 (B) Magnetic force

(C) Muscular force (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The force of attraction or repulsion between two electric charges is electric force.


44. If four resistances of 1 Ω are connected in parallel and 1 Ω is connected in series with combination then what will be the effective resistance?

(A) 1Ω (B) 1.25Ω

(C) 0.75Ω (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- For parallel connection effective resistance is    

= 4 Ω and RP = 0.25Ω this parallel equivalent resistance is connected in series with R = 1Ω resistance therefor the equivalent resistance in series is given by = 1+ 0.25 = 1.25Ω


45. A battery of e.m.f 6 V is connected across a resistance of 10 Ω Calculate the current flowing

through a resistance.

(A) 0.6A (B) 60 A

(C) 1.66 A (D) 6 A

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- V= IR i.e. E =IR therefore            


46.4.8×10-20 eV is equal to

(A )76.8 ×10-39 J (B) 7.68×10-39J

(C) 0.768×10-39 J (D) none of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:-1 eV =1.6×10-19J therefore 46.4.8×10-20 eV = 7.68×10-39J


47. The total number of magnetic lines of force passing normally through a given area is called as

(A) electric lines of force (B) magnetic flux

(C) magnetic flux density (D) none of these

Answer :- Option B

Explanation:- It is a definition of magnetic flux.


48. 1 weber = maxwell

(A) 10-6 (B) 106

(C) 108 (D) none of these

Answer :- Option C

Explanation:- 1 weber =108 maxwell


49. A force of 4.5 N acts on a charge of 7.5 × 10-4 C. Calculate the electric field at that point.

(A) 3000N/C (B) 33.75×10-4 N/C

(C) 6000 N/C (D) none of these

Answer :- Option C         


50. The magnetic lines of forces are crowded in a region where the magnetic field is 

(A) zero (B) absent

(C) large (D) none of these

Answer :- Option C

Explanation:- The magnetic lines of forces are crowded in a region where the magnetic field is large.


51. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor at absolute zero is 

(A) infinite (B) zero

(C) large (D) none of these

Answer :- Option B

Explanation:- The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor at absolute zero is zero.


52. Forbidden energy gap is large 

(A) conductors (B) insulators

(C) semiconductors (D) none of these

Answer :- Option B

Explanation:- Forbidden energy gap is large in insulators.


53. As temperature increases, the conductivity of conductor 

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) does not change (D) none of these

Answer :- Option B

Explanation:- As temperature increases, the conductivity of conductor decreases.


54. As temperature increases, the resistance of conductor 

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) does not change (D) none of these

Answer :- Option A

Explanation:- As temperature increases, the resistance of conductor increases.


55. As temperature increases, the conductivity of insulator 

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) does not change (D) none of these

Answer :- Option A

Explanation:- As temperature increases, the conductivity of insulator increases.


56. The knee voltage for Si diode is and for Ge diode is 

(A) 0.7V, 0.3V (B) 1.1V,0.5V

C) 1.5V,0.8V (D) none of these

Answer :- Option A

Explanation:- The knee voltage for Si diode is 0.7V and for Ge diode is 0.3V.


57. The p-n junction diode is used in 

(A) switch (B) clipping circuits

(C) demodulator circuit (D) all of these

Answer :- Option D

Explanation:- These are applications of p-n junction diode.


58. Direction of flow of conventional current in electric circuit is from 

(A) Higher potential to lower potential (B) Lower potential to higher potential

(C) Cannot be determined (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- In electrical circuits conventional current flows from higher potential to lower potential.


03 - Heat and Optics

1. For Boyle’s law, which is true ----

(A) P and V Changes, but T is constant (B) P and T Changes, but V is constant (C)T and V Changes, but P is constant (D) All P, V, T are changing

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- According to Boyle’s law statement


2. Temperature at NTP condition is ---------

(A) 0 0C (B) 0 K

(C) 25 0C (D) 100 0C

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- At NTP values are constant.


3. For fixed mass of gas if its temperature (0C) is doubled without changing its volume, what is its pressure ---------

(A) it is doubled (B) it remains same

(C) no change (D) it is halved

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Using Gay Lussac’s law…P1T1=P2 T2, Given T2=2 X T1, P1T1=2 P2 T1, P2=P1/2


4. Gas has specific heats.

(A) two (B) three

(C) one (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Gases are very much sensitive for their changes in pressure, volume and temperature as compare to solids and liquids so

5. When gas is heated at constant pressure and constant volume, amount of heat required to increase temperature by 10C is

(A) different (B) same

(C) less (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- In case of gas heated at constant pressure some additional heat is required to increase temperature f by 10C for expansion


6. If Cp – Cv = 140 Joules/ kg k and ratio of two specific heats is 1.2 then values of Cp and Cv are-

(A) 840 J/Kg K and 700 J/Kg K (B) 700 J/Kg K and 560 J/Kg K

(C) 900 J/Kg K and 840 J/Kg K (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The relation between Cp and Cv is (Cp-Cv = γ)


7. 1 cal = J

(A) 6.63 (B) 4.184

(C) 4184 (D) 1484

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Relation between calorie and joule


8. When light ray travels from rarer medium to denser medium then

(A) angle of incidence = angle of refraction (B) angle of incidence ‹ angle of refraction

(C) angle of incidence > angle of refraction (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Because ray bends towards normal and angle of refraction decreases


9. For total internal reflection in optical fiber core refractive index (μ1) andcladding refractive index (μ2) should maintain the relation

(A) μ1 < μ1 (B) μ1 = μ2

(C) μ1 > μ2 (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The condition for T.I.R. is that refractive index of core should be greater than refractive index of cladding

10. If velocity of light in air is 3 x 10 8 m / sec and refractive index of medium is 1.5 then the velocity of light in medium is

(A) 200 x 108 m / sec (B) 3 x 108 m / sec

(C) 20 x 108 m / sec (D) 2 x 108 m / sec

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- According to formula μ=velocity of light in air/ velocity of light in that medium


11. When light ray makes incidence normally, then the angle of refraction is……

(A) 90 0 (B) acute

(C) obtuse (D) zero

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- According to law of refraction


12. Pen dropped vertically in water appears bends due to

(A) Reflection (B) Refraction

(C) T.I.R. (D) Dispersion

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Bending of light is known as refraction


13. If angle of incidence is equal to critical angle, then angle of refraction is equal to-----

(A) 1800 (B) zero

(C) 450 (D) 900

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- The critical angle is the angle of incidence at which angle of refraction is 90


14. If core refractive index (μ1) and cladding refractive index (μ2) for given optical fiber is given to be

1.54 and 1.42 then its acceptance angle is --.

(A) 29.33 0 (B) 32 0

(C) 250 (D) 40 0

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- According to formula of acceptance angle


15. The advantages of optical fiber over routine cable are

(A) Low cost (B) low signal loss

(C) wide band width (D) all the three

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Properties of optical fiber-lighter weight, low cost, low signal loss, large band width, flexible

16. In optical fibers the propagation of light is due to

(A) Diffraction (B) total internal reflection

(C) Reflection (D) refraction

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Optical fiber carries light from one end of fiber to other end because of the multiple total internal reflection.


17. When the light gets refracted, there is change in it’s

(A) Velocity (B) direction

(C) both velocity and direction (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- This is property of light


18. Velocity of light in vacuum is ………….

(A) 3 x 108 m/s (B) 3x 10-8 m/s

(C) 300 m/s (D) 380 m/s

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- This is constant value


19. For total internal reflection angle of incidence should be ……

(A) equal to critical angle (B) less than critical angle

(C) greater than critical angle (D) equal to angle of reflection

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Condition of T.I.R.

 

20. Optical fiber works on the principle of …………

(A) reflection (B) refraction

(C) dispersion (D) total internal reflection

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Because of T.I.R. the light beam will continue to propagate through the fiber even though it is bent number of times


21. Mode of transfer of heat through bodily movement of particles is -----------

(A) Conduction (B) convection

(C) radiation (D) none of above

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- By definition of convection


22. On providing heat to the body, if it does not increase its internal energy then body is said to be in the state of ---------

(A) Standard state (B) Normal state

(C) Steady state (D) None of above

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The state in which temperature of body remains constant is called steady state.


23. Liquid nitrogen has temperature -180 0C then its temperature in Kelvin is---

(A) 180 K (B) 93 K

(C) -93 K (D) 453 K

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Because K= 0 0C+273


24. Average measure of Kinetic energy of all particles within body is known as ---------

(A) temperature (B) heat

(C) power (D) none of above

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- By definition of temperature


25. SI Unit of heat is ---------

(A) Kcal (B) cal

(C) joule (D) watt

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- S.I. unit is joule and MKS unit is Kcal


26. SI Unit of temperature is ----------------

(A) Celsius (B) Kelvin

(C) Fahrenheit (D) none of above

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- S.I. unit is Kelvin and other units are degree Celsius, degree Fahrenheit


27. If the temperature difference between opposite faces of the rod of length 100 cm is100 0C, then temperature gradient is ----------

(A)100 0C/m (B) 10000 0C/m

(C) 1 0C/m (D) none of the above

Answer:- Option A


28. Zero Kelvin is equals to-------

(A) 0 0C (B) 273 0C

(C) – 273 0C (D) -100 0C

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Because 0 K=0 0C+273


29. Zero degree Celsius is equals to ------

(A) 32 0F (B) 2730F

(C) -32 0F (D) none of above

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Because 0C=0F-32/1.8


30. SI Unit of temperature gradient is-------

(A) 0C / m (B) C/ cm

(C) K/m (D) K

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- S.I. unit is K/m and MKS unit is 0C/ m.


31. In step index optical fiber, the R.I. of,

(A) Core is uniform throughout the fiber same (B) Core & cladding is

(C) Core is changing from axis to boundary (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- If we see radially outward from the core axis, there is step (sudden) change in R.I. at the core- cladding interface.


32. Based on variation of R.I of core, the two types of optical fiber are,

(A) Step index and single mode (B) Step index and Graded index

(C) Graded index and multimode (D) Single mode and multimode

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- These are the types of optical fiber based on variation of refractive index of core


33. In single mode step index optical fiber, for light

(A) There are many zigzag paths (B) There is only one zigzag path

(C) There are many curved paths (D) There is only one curved path

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- As the name suggest there is only one zigzag path


34. The light gathering power of optical fiber is called as

(A) Acceptance angle (B) Numerical aperture

(C) Acceptance cone (D) All of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Numerical aperture measures the light gathering capacity of the optical fiber

 

35. As per Snell’s law for a given pair of media, the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction-----

(A) Increases (B) decreases

(C) remains constant (D) Increases then decreases

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- According to Snell’s law of refraction


36. Refractive index of air or vacuum is--------

(A) zero (B) One

(C)Two (D) Three

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- This is constant value


37. Heating produces of body

(A) Solidification (B) Expansion

(C) Contraction (D) None of above

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Heating produces expansion of body.


38. Which of the following is a correct statement

(A) Temperature is a cause and Heat is its effect (B) Heat and temperature both are causes

(C) Heat and temperature both are effects (D) Heat is a cause and Temperature is its effect

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Due to increase in heat, temperature increases.


39. The fastest process of heat transfer is

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Radiation (D) Refraction

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Radiation is the fastest process because in this case the transfer of heat takes place at the speed of light.


40. A metal rod 19cm long, of area 0.79cm2 has a temperature difference of 700C.Calculate the heat flowing in 5 minute (Given K=380W/m0K)

(A) 790 cal (B) 890 cal

(C) 789 cal (D) 629 cal

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Q =  790 cal.

 

41. Unit of temperature gradient is,

(A) m / 0C (B) Sec / 0C

(C) 0C / m (D) 0C / sec

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Temperature gradient is defined as the change in temperature per unit length of rod.

42. The state in which temperature of substance goes on increasing w.r.t time is called

(A) Variable state (B) Steady state

(C) Normal state (D) Critical state

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The state in which temperature of substance goes on increasing w.r.t time is called as, variable state.


43. Heat absorbed by the material > Heat given out by the material is concerned with,

(A) Normal state (B) Critical state

(C) Variable state (D) Steady state

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:-In variable heat absorbed by the material is greater than heat given out by material.


44. Heat absorbed by the material=Heat given out by the material is concerned with,

(A) Normal state (B) Critical state

(C) Variable state (D) Steady state

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- In steady state, heat absorbed by the material=Heat given out by the material


45. Heat flowing through material of rod of unit area, in 1 sec for unit temperature gradientat steady state is known as,

(A) Conductivity (B) Heat Constant

(C) Coefficient of thermal conductivity (D) Thermal constant

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- By definition of Coefficient of thermal conductivity


46. As per law of thermal conductivity, amount of heat flowing through the rod is

(A) Directly proportional to cross sectional area (B) Directly proportional to temperature gradient

(C) Directly proportional to time (D) All of these

Answer:- Option D


47. The SI unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity is,

(A) Watt-m-K (B) Watt/m-K

(C) m K/Watt (D) m/watt-K

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- The SI unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity is, Watt/m-K


48. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of good conductors of heatis,

(A) Low (B) Medium

(C) High (D) None of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The coefficient of thermal conductivity of good conductors of heat is high and for bad conductors low.


49. Which of the following material is not a bad conductor of heat?

(A) Plastic (B) Wood

(C) Mica (D) Plastic & mica both

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Mica is good conductor of heat but bad conductor of electricity.


50. Which of the following material is not a good conductor ofheat?

(A) Thermocole (B) Mica

(C) Thermocole & mica both (D) Copper

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Thermocole is bad conductor of heat.


51. Thermal resistor is - the thermal conductivity.

(A) Reciprocal of (B) Equal to

(C) Addition of (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:-R α 1/k


52. Which type of material is used as a heat sink in electronic circuits?

(A) Bad conducting (B) Conducting

(C) Semiconducting (D) All of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Good conducting material is used as a heat sink in electronic circuits.


53. Condenser coil in the refrigerator is ideally made up of,

(A) Bad conductor (B) Insulator

(C) Semiconducting (D) Good Conductor

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Condenser coil in the refrigerator is ideally made up of copper (good conductor).


54. Davy’s safety lamp is covered by,

(A) Insulating material (B) Good conducting material

(C) Semiconducting material (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Davy’s safety lamp is covered by good conducting material (iron).


55. Which material is used in Ice box?

(A) Bad conducting material (B) Good conducting material

(C) Semiconducting material (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- A bad conducting material is used in ice box.


56. Handle of cooker is made up of,

(A) Good conducting material (B)  Semiconducting material

(C) Aluminum (D) Bad conducting material

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Handle of cooker is made up of bad conducting material


57. Room ventilation, Formation of trade winds, sea breeze are the applications of

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Radiation (D) All of the above

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- All are applications of convection.


58. Heat radiations in car, use of white clothes in summer are applications of

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Radiation (D) All of the above

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Heat radiations in car, use of white clothes in summer are applications of radiation.


59. Radiation can

(A) Travel through vacuum (B) Travel with speed of light

(C) Reflect, Refract (D) All of these

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- As radiant energy is electromagnetic in nature.


60. For a fixed mass of gas, Temperature of gas remaining constant, Its pressure is inversely proportional to its volume is,

(A) Boyle’s law (B) Charle’s Law

(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Newton’s law

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- According to Boyle’s law statement.


61. For a fixed mass of gas, pressure of gas remaining constant, Its Volume is directly proportional to its absolute temperature is,

(A) Boyle’s law (B) Charle’s Law

(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Newton’s law

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- According to Charle’s Law statement.


62. For a fixed mass of gas, volume of gas remaining constant, its pressure is directlyproportional to its absolute temperature is,

(A) Boyle’s law (B) Charle’s Law

(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Newton’s law

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- According to Gay Lussac’s law statement


63. A hot air balloon is an example of,

(A) Boyle’s law (B) Charle’s Law

(C) Gay Lussac’s law (D) Newton’s law

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- When gas is heated the gas expands.so when air inside the balloon expands, it becomes less dense and provides the lift for the hot air balloon.


64. If temperature of gas remains constant then the pressure of gas will be

(A) Increase with increase in volume (B) Decrease with decrease in volume

(C) Increase with decrease in volume (D) None of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Temperature of gas remaining constant, Its pressure is inversely proportional to its volume this is Boyle’s law.


65. If pressure of a gas remains constant, then volume of gas will 

(A) Increase with temperature (B) Decrease with temperature

(C) Increase with decrease in temperature (D) Decrease with increase in temperature

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- According to Charle’s Law statement


66. The general gas equation is given by,

(A) V=PRT (B) PT=VR

(C) P=VRT (D) PV=RT

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- The general gas equation is PV=RT


67. Ideal gas equation is given by,

(A) V=PKT (B) PT=VK

(C) P=VKT (D) PV=KT

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Ideal gas equation is PV=KT


68. At N.T.P normal temperature =

(A) 2730C (B) -2730C

(C) 273 K (D) 0 K

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- At N.T.P condition, normal temperature is 2730K 


69. At N.T.P normal temperature =

(A) 2730C (B) -2730C

(C) 00C (D) 0 K

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- At N.T.P condition normal temperature is 2730K or 00C


70. At N.T.P, pressure P =

(A) 1cm of Hg (B) 76cm of Hg

(C) 1N/m 2 (D) 76 atmosphere

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- At N.T.P condition normal pressure is76cm of Hg or 1 atmosphere.

71. At N.T.P, pressure P =

(A) 1cm of Hg (B) 1 atmosphere

(C) 1N/m2 (D) 76 atmosphere

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- At N.T.P condition, normal pressure is 76cm of Hg or 1 atmosphere.


72. Specific heat of gas at constant pressure Cp is always specific heat of gas at constant volume Cv.

(A) Equal to (B) Greater than

(C) Less than (D) Same as

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- In case of Cp some additional heat is required for expanding the gas.


73. Cooking becomes faster in pressure cooker because the increase in vapourpressure

(A) Increases specific heat (B) Decreases specific heat

(C) Decreases boiling point (D) Increases boiling point

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Because trapped steam increases the pressure inside cooker. At that pressure boiling point of water increased and this higher temperature cooks food faster.


74. For 1 kg mole of a gas, the value of universal gas constant R in equation, PV=RT is,

(A) 83.149 J/K kg mole (B) 0.83149 J/K kg mole

(C) 8314.91 J/K kg mole (D) 4200 J/K kg mole

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- The value of R is constant.


75. Specific heat at constant pressure Cp & at constant Volume Cv are related as,

(A) Cp- Cv=R/M (B) Cp / Cv =γ

(C) Both A & C (D) None of these

Answer:- Option C

Explanation:- Mayor’s relation is Cp - Cv = R / M. and ratio of sp. heats is Cp / Cv = γ


76. Difference between the specific heat Cp and Cv is,

(A) Less than zero (B) constant.

(C) Both a & b (D) Greater than zero

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- because Cp- Cv=R/M


77. Ratio of the specific heat Cp to Cv is,

(A) Less than 1 (B) Greater than 1

(C)Between a & b (D) None of these

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Cp / Cv >1, because Cp > Cv.


78. Thickness of a plate is 10cm, the temperature of two faces are 900C and 600C. Find the temperature gradient

(A) 300C/cm (B) 30C/cm

(C) 10C/cm (D) 70C/cm

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Temperature gradient =30C/cm


79. Thickness of a plate is 8cm. the temperature of two faces are 1000C and -200C. Find the temperature gradient.

(A)100C/cm (B) 200C/cm

(C) 250C/cm (D) 150C/cm

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- Temperature gradient =150C/cm


80. A nickel plate of thickness 4mm has temperature difference of 32 0C between its faces .It transmits 200 Kcal per hour through an area of 5 cm2.Calculate the conductivity of nickel.

(A) 0.0139 Kcal/m0Csec (B) 2.0139 Kcal/m0Csec

(C) 2.4139 cal/m0Csec (D) None of these

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:-Given d=4mm=4x10-3m, ( )=32 0C, Q=200Kcal, A=5 cm2=5x10-4m2 ,


81. The difference between two specific heats of a gas is 1500 & their ratio is 1:6. Find Cp & Cv

(A) 1800 ,300 units (B) 1900, 400 units

(C) 1720,220 units (D) 2000,500 units

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- Cp- Cv=1500----eqn.1, Cp / Cv =6/1 eqn.2,

Cp>Cv (always), from eqn.2, Cp =6Cv putting in equation 1., 6Cv - Cv =1500,

5 Cv=1500, Cv=1500/5, Cv=300units, putting in equation 2., Cp =6 Cv =6 x300=1800 units.


82. A glass bulb contains air at pressure of 76 cm of Hg at 27 0C when its volume is 100cc.It is placed in oil at temperature of 570C. What will be the pressure inside, when the volume of the bulb becomes 125cc?

(A) 120 cm of Hg (B) 66.88 cm of Hg

(C) 100 cm of Hg (D) 101 cm of Hg

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- Given P1=76 cm of Hg, p2=?, V1=100cc, V2=125cc, t1=27 0C, t2=57 0C, T1=27+273=300 K, T2=57 + 273=330 K, We have,

P1V1/T1= P2V2/T2, P2= P1V1 T2/T1 V2 =66.88 cm of Hg.


83. Speed of light in Quartz is 1.98 X 108m/s. Calculate R.I of quartz.

(A) 1.3 (B) 1.51

(C) 1.4 (D) 1.2

Answer:- Option B

Explanation:- R.I. = Velocity of light in vacuum / velocity of light in that medium, R.I. of quartz = (3 X 108)/ (1.98 X 108) = 1.51


84. An example for non-luminous object is,

(A) Candle (B) The sun

(C) An Electric Bulb (D) The moon

Answer:- Option D

Explanation:- The light emitted by object is called luminous object.


85. Light is a form of energy produced by a

(A) Luminous object (B) Transparent object

(C) Non-luminous object (D) Opaque object

Answer:- Option A

Explanation:- The light emitted by object is called luminous object


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3 Comments

  1. This website is a best for exam preparation . I like it.
    Answer ke sath explain bhi kiya hai.

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  2. Thank you so much sir

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