22518 Software Testing MCQs for Computer Engineering PDF
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SCHEME: I SEMESTER: V
NAME OF SUBJECT: SOFTWARE TESTING
Subject Code: 22518
{tocify} $title={Table of Contents}
COMPUTER ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT
Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions- All Units
Program: Diploma in Computer Engineering Program Code: - CO
Scheme: - I Semester: - 5
Course: - Software Testing Course Code: - 22518
01 – Basics of Software Testing and Testing Methods Marks: -14
Content of Chapter: -
Software Testing, Objectives of Testing.
1.2 Failure, Error, Fault, Defect, Bug Terminology.
1.3 Test Case, When to Start and Stop Testing of Software (Entry and Exit Criteria).
1.4 Verification and Validation (V Model), Quality Assurance, Quality Control.
1.5 Methods of Testing: Static and dynamic Testing
1.6 The box approach: White Box Testing Inspections, Walkthroughs, Technical Reviews, functional Testing,
Code Coverage Testing, Code Complexity Testing.
1.7 Black Box Testing: Requirement Based Testing, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partitioning,
01 – Basics of Software Testing and Testing Methods
Q. No. Question
1) Which of the following testing is also known as white-box testing?
a. Structural testing
b. Error guessing technique
c. Design based testing
d. None of the above
2)When customer can says that the quality of the product is too good?
a. Software meets its defined specification
b. Software is technically excellent
c. Software has few bugs
d. Software fulfills expectations of customer
3) In Which of the following situation defects will arise?
a. No knowledge of system
b. System is used in wrong way
c. May have coded wrongly
d. All the above
4) Which of the following testing is related to the boundary value analysis?
a. White box and black box testing
b. White-box testing
c. Black box testing
d. None of the above
5) Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it. Is the above statement, correct?
A. Yes
B. No
6) A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a
certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that
time tester is performing .
a. White-box Testing
b. Black-box Testing
c. Load Testing
d. Regression Testing
7) In Software Development Life Cycle, who is the best person to catch a Defect?
a. Software Tester
b. Customers
c. Designer
d. Business Analyst
e. Developer
8)Which of the following is not a part of STLC (Software Testing Life Cycle)?
a. Testing Planning
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Test Design
d. Testing closure
9)All defects result in failure.
a. True
b. False
10)Verification is focused on .
a. Product
b. Process
c. Both
d. None
11) Validation is focused on .
a. Product
b. Process
c. Both
d. None
12) Which technique is applied for usability testing?
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Grey box
d. Combination of all
11) Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,
Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
a. SDLC
b. STLC
c. SQLC
d. BLC
14) Which of the following are the objectives of Software Testing?
a. Determines that software product satisfy specified requirements
b. Demonstrate that software products are fit for use
c. Detect defects
d. All the above
15)Which of the following is the main advantage of Top-Down Integration Testing?
a. Major decision points are tested early.
b. Modules are not tested by team again and again.
c. No stubs need to be written
d. None of the above.
16) Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which type of
testing?
a. Integration testing
b. Validation testing
c. Unit testing
d. None of the above.
17) Quality Assurance methods are usually considered
a. Detective
b. Corrective
c. Preventive
d. Proactive
18)is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe.
a. Equivalence Partitioning
b. Basis Path Testing
c. Boundary Value Analysis
d. None of the above.
19) What types of errors are not done by Black-Box Testing and can be uncovered by
White-Box Testing?
a. Logic errors
b. Performance errors
c. Behavioural errors
d. None of the above
20) Which of the following can be found using Static Testing Techniques?
a. Defect
b. Failure
c. A
d. B
21) When the Testing Principles are useful while building the Software Product?
a. During testing
b. During execution
c. During review
d. Throughout life-cycle
22) A logical collection of test cases which naturally work together is called as .
a. Test log
b. Test procedure
c. Test data
d. Test suite
23) A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a
certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that time
tester is performing .
a. White-box Testing
b. Black-box Testing
c. Load Testing
d. Regression Testing
24) Which of the followings are Experience Based Techniques?
a. Error guessing
b. Equivalent partitioning
c. Exploratory testing
d. Both a and c
25) State limitations of manual testing
a. Not suitable for large scale projects and time bound projects.
b. Comparing large amounts of data is impractical.
c. Lack of training is the common problem
d. All of the above
26) Testing is only a phase in development life cycle activity.
a. True
b. False
27) What is Cyclomatic Complexity?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Grey box testing
d. Combination of all
28) Which of the following statement is true?
a. Exhaustive Testing is impossible but practicable.
b. Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable.
c. Exhaustive Testing is impossible and impracticable.
d. Exhaustive Testing is possible and practicable.
29) Which is a Formal Review Technique?
a. Walk through
b. peer to peer review
c. Inspection
d. All of the above
30) Which Testing is performed first?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Dynamic testing
d. Static testing
31) Errors, Defects, Failures are synonymous.
a. True
b. False
32) Which is/are the characteristics of Equivalence Partitioning?
a. In equivalence-partitioning technique we need to test only one condition from each partition.
b. If one condition in a partition works, we assume all of the conditions in that partition will work.
c. Equivalence partitions and equivalence classes both terms mean exactly the same thing.
d. All of the above
33) Which of the following testing is also known as white-box testing?
a. Structural testing
b. Error guessing technique
c. Design based testing
d. None of the above
34) When customer can says that the quality of the product is too good?
a. Software meets its defined specification
b. Software is technically excellent
c. Software has few bugs
d. Software fulfills expectations of customer
35) In Which of the following situation defects will arise?
a. No knowledge of system
b. System is used in wrong way
c. May have coded wrongly
d. All the above
36) Black box testing is only functional testing.
a. True
b. False
37) Which of the following testing is related to the boundary value analysis?
a. White box and black box testing
b. White-box testing
c. Black box testing
d. None of the above
38) Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it. Is the above statement, correct?
A. Yes
B. No
39) A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a
certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that time
tester is performing .
a. White-box Testing
b. Black-box Testing
c. Load Testing
d. Regression Testing
40) In Software Development Life Cycle, who is the best person to catch a Defect?
a. Software Tester
b. Customers
c. Designer
d. Business Analyst
e. Developer
Which of the following is not a part of STLC (Software Testing Life Cycle)?
a. Testing Planning
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Test Design
d. Testing closure
42) All defects result in failure.
a. True
b. False
43) Verification is focused on.
a. Product
b. Process
c. Both
d. None
02 – Types and Levels of Testing Marks: -18
Content of Chapter: -
Levels of testing
2.1 Unit Testing: Driver, Stub
2.2 Integration testing: Top-Down Integration, Bottom-Up Integration,Bi-Directional Integration,
2.3 Testing on Web Application: Performance Testing: Load Testing. Stress "testing, Security Testing,
Client Server testing.
2.4 Acceptance Testing: Alpha testing and Beta testing, Special Tests:"Regression Testing, GUI Testing
02 – Types and Levels of Testing
1) Which are the benefits of Static Testing?
a. Early feedback of a quality.
b. Less rework cost.
c. Increased developmental productivity.
d. All of the above
2) Beta Testing is useful way of compatibility testing.
a. True
b. False
3) Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the software?
a. Regression testing
b. Retesting.
c. Sanity testing
d. All of these
4) What is the main purpose of integration testing?
a. Design errors
b. Interface errors
c. Procedure errors
d. None of the above
5) What are the objectives of Integration Testing?
a. To verify that system is functioning according to specified requirements.
b. To verify that system meets user expectation and needs.
c. To verify that interfaces between different parts of system.
d. All of the above
6) Non-Functional Testing is performed only at System Testing level.
a. True
b. False
7) Which of the following is the main advantage of Top-Down Integration Testing?
a. Major decision points are tested early.
b. Modules are not tested by team again and again.
c. No stubs need to be written
d. None of the above.
Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which type of
testing?
a. Integration testing
b. Validation testing
c. Unit testing
d. None of the above.
9) The expected results of the software are .
a. Only important in system testing
b. Only used in component testing
c. Most useful when specified in advance
d. Derived from the code.
10) What are the different levels of Testing?
a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
c. System testing
d. All of the above
11)
Finding Defect is not a major goal of Acceptance Testing.
a. True
b. False
12)
Which testing is concerned with behaviour of whole product as per specified
requirements?
a. Acceptance testing
b. Component testing
c. System testing
d. Integration testing
13)
What are the different levels of Testing?
a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
c. System testing
d. All of the above
14)
calls the function and passes it test data.
a. Test Stub
b. Test Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
15)
Who is responsible for Acceptance Testing?
a. Software tester
b. Designer
c. Customer
d. Developer
16)
Stubs and Drivers are used in component and Integration Testing.
a. True
b. False
White Box Testing is not concern with .
a. Statement Coverage
b. Decision Coverage
c. Cause and Effect Coverage
d. Multiple Condition Coverage
18)
In which environment we can performed the Alpha testing?
a. User's end
b. Developer's end
c. User's and developer's end
d. None of the above
19)
What is the order of Priority Testing?
a. Unit >>Integration >>System Testing.
b. Unit>> System>>Acceptance Testing.
c. System>>Integration>> Acceptance Testing.
d. System>>Acceptance>>Integration
20)
Software quality is measured by functional as well as non-functional attributes.
a. True
b. False
21)
Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Theta
22)
Who performs the Acceptance Testing?
a. Software Developer
b. End users
c. Testing team
d. Systems engineers
23)
To make testing effective, software tester focuses more only on code.
a. True
b. False
24)
Which of the following is/are not a characteristic/s of Alpha Testing?
a. Simulated environment is created at developers’ site and user tests the system.
b. System is installed at user organization and user tests the system.
c. Alpha testing is also called as factory acceptance testing.
d. Alpha testing is also called as site acceptance testing.
e. both b and d
25)
Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Acceptance Testing determines if system is ready for release
b. Acceptance Testing checks whether system meets needs and expectations
c. Acceptance Testing helps to find defects in system
d. Acceptance Testing is responsibility of user
26)
Which of the following is used in high level of testing?
a. Functional testing
b. Structural testing
c. Glass box testing
d. All of these
Finding and fixing error does not guarantee that user will accept the system.
a. True
b. False
28)
Test strategy gives rules for Testing.
a. True
b. False
29)
Which of the following statements is correct to perform a successful Software Testing
Process?
a. Conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing.
b. Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner.
c. Option A and B are correct
d. None of the above
30)
Which of the following is not another name for Structural Testing?
a. White box Testing
b. Glass box Testing
c. Behavioural Testing
d. None of the above
31)
Which of the followings is NOT a White Box Technique?
a. Statement testing
b. Path testing
c. Data flow testing
d. None of the above
32)
_ verifies that all elements mesh properly and overall system
functions/performance is achieved.
a. Integration testing
b. Validation testing
c. Unit testing
d. System Testing
33)
What do you verify in White Box Testing?
a. Testing of each statement, object and function on an individual basis.
b. Expected output.
c. The flow of specific inputs through the code.
d. All of the above
34)
What is an Equivalence Partition?
a. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects.
b. An input or output range of values such as have only one value in the range becomes a
test case.
c. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test
case.
35)
Which of the following is not a part of Performance Testing?
a. Measuring Transaction Rate.
b. Measuring Response Time.
c. Measuring the LOC.
d. None of the above.
36)
Stubs and Drivers are used in Big Bang Integration.
a. True
b. False
37)
Component Drivers are not needed for .
a. Big-Bang
b. Top Down
c. Modified Top Down
d. Modified Sandwich
38)
Which of the following situations in Regression Testing is not performed?
a. When project manager asks to perform.
b. When new functionality is introduced.
c. When database system is changed
d. When system is installed on different hardware configuration than previously tested.
39)
Which is not true in case of Unit Testing?
a. It decreases the software development speed.
b. It can‟t be expected to catch every error in a program.
c. In this tester evaluates if individual units of source code are fit for use.
d. It is usually conducted by the development team.
40)
Which of the followings is/are characteristic/s of Stress Testing?
a. It is a type of Non-Functional Testing
b. It involves testing beyond normal operational capacity, often to a breaking point, in order to
observe the results.
c. It is used to determine the stability of a given system.
d. It put great emphasis on robustness, availability, and error handling under a heavy load, rather
than on what would be considered correct behaviour under normal circumstances.
e. All of the above.
41)
The speedometer of a car uses 7 colours to show the speed. Each colour covers a range of
20 km, with an operating minimum and maximum of 0 and 140. Which of the following
values is LEAST likely to have been identified when applying the Boundary Value Test
Design Technique?
a. -1
b. 0
c. 7
d. 121
42)
Which is the odd one out?
a. Beta testing
b. Beta release
c. Client side
d. Client or development side
43)
Debugging and Testing are same activities.
a. True
b. False
44)
Abbreviate the term SDLC?
a. System Design Life cycle
b. Software Design Life Cycle
c. System Development Life Cycle
d. Software Development Life Cycle
45)
A software testing team is doing testing without Planning and Documentation, then this
type of testing is called as, .
a. Unit testing
b. Regressing testing
c. Adhoc testing
d. Stress testing.
46)
Which of the following situations can we say “There is a Defect”?
a. A requirement is not implemented
b. A requirement is wrongly implemented
c. Something extra is implemented which is not specified in URS
d. All of the above
47)
STLC is related to which model?
a. Waterfall Model
b. RAD Model
c. V Model
d. Spiral Model
48)
Testing approach changes is based on the life cycle applied for development of a software.
a. True
b. False
49)
Which of the followings is/are a form of Functional Testing?
a. Boundary Value Analysis
b. Usability Testing
c. Performance Testing
d. Security Testing
50)
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Stubs are used in bottom-up approach.
2. Stubs are used in Top-down approach.
3. Drivers are used in bottom-up approach.
4. Drivers are used in Top-down approach.
a. 1, 3
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
51)
What is the example of Load Testing?
a. Downloading large contents from the internet.
b. Running multiple applications on a computer or server simultaneously.
c. Printing large document using printer in a queue.
d. Generating a large amount of traffic on particular page.
e. All the above
52)
Validation is the responsibility of .
a. Developer
b. Designer
c. Tester
d. QA Team
e. All the stakeholders
53)
Quality is conformance to requirements.
a. True
b. False
54)
Defects can be found more easily in .
a. Bottom-up Integration Testing
b. Top-down Integration Testing
c. Big Bang Testing.
d. Sandwich Integration Testing
55)
Acceptance Testing can be done after system is installed.
a. True
b. False
56)
Which of the following is the largest bug producer?
a. Code
b. Design
c. Specification
d. All of the above
57)
Building the software does not require a different mindset from testing the software.
a. True
b. False
58)
Difference between Retesting and Regression Testing is .
a. Retesting ensures the original fault has been removed where as regression testing looks
for unexpected side-effects.
b. Retesting looks for unexpected side-effects where as regression testing ensures the original
fault has been removed.
c. Retesting is done after faults are fixed where as regression testing is done earlier
d. Retesting is done by developers whereas regression testing is done by independent testers
59) In Big Bang Integration, all the modules are not required to be completed before the
Integration Testing starts.
a. True
b. False
Which of the following are / is the characteristics of Incremental Integration Model?
1. Defects are easy to detect.
2. All the modules are required to be completed before integration testing starts.
3. It is time consuming.
4. Stubs and Drivers are used.
a. 2, 4
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. All of the above
61)
Which of the following is / are the types of Acceptance System?
a. Alpha testing
b. Beta testing
c. Contract acceptance testing
d. Compliance acceptance testing
e. All of the above
62)
Minimum of four test data are available in .
a. Boundary Value Analysis
b. Equivalence Class Partitioning
c. Both A and B
d. None of these.
63)
Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta Testing?
a. Acceptance Testing
b. System Testing
c. Unit Testing
d. Integration Testing
64)
A large-scale system integration test may come after the acceptance of a system.
a. True
b. False
65)
Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis techniques are used only during
system testing.
a. True
b. False
66)
For effective testing, variety of techniques should be used in combination.
a. True
b. False
67)
Who leads a formal review process?
a. Author
b. Moderator
c. Reviewer
d. Scribe
End result of Software Requirement Analysis is .
a. Functional and Behavioural
b. Architectural and Structural
c. Usability and Reliability
d. Algorithmic and Data Structure
69)
Exit criteria is determined during .
a. Test Closure activity
b. Implementation and execution
c. Evaluating exit criteria and Reporting
e. Planning and Control
70)
During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects?
a. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
b. Test closure activity
c. Test implementation and execution
d. Test analysis and design
71)
Testing objective is different for each phase of life cycle activity.
a. True
b. False
72)
Debugging is not Testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.
a. True
b. False
73)
refers to a different set of tasks ensures that the software that has been built
is traceable to Customer Requirements.
a. Verification
b. Requirement engineering
c. Validation
d. None of the above
74)
White-Box Testing is also known as .
a. Structural testing
b. Code-Based Testing
c. Clear box testing
d. All of the above
75)
Which of the following values for age are in the same Equivalence Partition?
- If you are less than 18, you are too young to be registered for program.
- Between 18 and 50 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
- Anyone over 50 is not eligible for a discount.
a. 17, 18, 19
b. 51, 52, 53
c. 18, 49, 50
d. 17, 49, 51
76) Black Box Testing is also known as .
a. Behavioural Testing
b. Flow Testing
c. Data Testing
d. None of the above
77) Equivalence Partitioning comes under which type of Testing?
a. White Box Testing
b. Black Box Testing
c. Grey Box Testing
d. None of the above
78) The defects found in Static Testing and Dynamic Testing are same.
a. True
b. False
03 – Test Management Marks: -14
Content of Chapter: -
3.1 Test Planning: Preparing a Test Plan, Deciding test Approach, Settling Up 'Criteria for
Testing, Identifying Responsibilities, Staffing, Resource Requirements, Test Deliverables,
Testing Tasks.
3.2 Test Management: Test InfrastructureManagement, Test People Management.
3.3 Test Process: Base Lining a Test Plan,Test Case Specification.
3.4 Test Reporting: Executing Test Cases,Preparing Test Summary Report.
03 – Test Management
1)Test plans are based on .
a. Project Plan
b. Business Plan
c. Support Plan
d. All of these
2)
Which is least required skill of a Tester?
a. Good Programmer
b. Reliable
c. Attention to details
d. Being diplomatic
3)
Writing a test summary report is a major task of .
a. Test Closure activity
b. Implementation and execution
c. Evaluating exit criteria and Reporting
d. Analysis and Design
e. Planning and Control
4)
What is a role of Test Manager?
a. determines when to release a system
b. Reallocate resources to meet objectives
c. report deviations in project plan
d. raise incidents on fault
5)
Verification is focused on .
a. Product
b. Process
c. Both
d. None
6)
A new project manager takes the control of a project that is in development phase. What will
be his first goal?
a. Establish relationship with customer.
b. Modify team according to his management style.
c. Learn project objective and existing plan.
d. Ensures the project progress at Current Place.
7)
Validation is focused on .
a. Product
b. Process
c. Both
d. None
Why it is difficult for a developer to do a testing job?
a. lack of Training
b. lack of Testing Tools
c. lack of Technical Documents
d. lack of Objectives
9)
Test cases are created in which phase?
a. Test Specification
b. Test Planning
c. Test Requirement
d. Test Configuration
10)
A document that contains description of any event that has happened, which requires further
investigation is called as .
a. Test Summary Report
b. Defect Report
c. Bug Report
d. Incident Report
11)
During which phase discrepancies are reported as defects?
a. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
b. Test closure activity
c. Test implementation and execution
d. Test analysis and design
12)
Which activities are a part of the Test Execution and Implementation?
1. Creating test suites from the test cases
2. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
3. Comparing actual results
4. Designing the Tests
5. Writing a test summary report
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 5
13)
A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a .
a. Test suite
b. Test procedure
c. Test data
d. Test log
14)
Which of the following is not a regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software subfunction
Which Test Document is used to define the Exit Criteria of Testing?
Defect Report
Test Summary Report
Test Case
Test Plan
16)
As a test manager you will be getting delayed delivery of build for testing which has to be
deployed on time. You have limited resources. By applying which measures are you able to
perform testing in given time?
a. Argue with development team and convince them to deliver build on time.
b. Ask for more resources.
c. Request customer about extending time.
d. Prioritize testing based on risk & make sure critical functionality is tested earlier.
17)
Enlist activities involved in test planning.
a. Deciding Test approach /strategy
b. Setting up criteria for testing
c. Scope Management
d. Identifying responsibilities, staffing and training needs
e. All of the above
18)
What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan?
a. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
b. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
c. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d.To plan when to stop testing
19)
Following is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase.
a. requirements gathering
B. test planning
c. test closure
d. test design
20)
Test cases are designed during:
a. test recording.
b. test configuration.
c. test planning.
d. test specification
21)
Test Conditions are derived from
a. test design
B. test cases
c. test data
d. specifications
22)
Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and
structures to be used.
a. true
B. false
23)
Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs
and effort required
a. true
B. false
24)
Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation
a. true
B. false
27. TQM represents
a. tool quality management
B. test quality manager
c. total quality management
d. total quality manager
26)
During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
a. execution
B. design
c. planning
d. check exit criteria completion
27)
The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a. project plan
B. business plan
c. support plan
d. none of the above
28)
Test suite is..
a. Set of test cases
B. Set of inputs
c. Set of outputs
d. None of the above
29)
must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur.
a. Test Strategy
B. Test Plan
c. Test Design
d. High Level document
30)
A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during
a formal review.
a. Moderator.
B. Scribe
c. Author
d. Manager
31)
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different priorities.”?
a. Staff turnover
B. Technology change
c. Management change
d. Product competition
32)
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed?
a. People risks
B. Technology risks
c. Estimation risks
d. Organizational risks
33)
Testing and subsequent debugging can account for software development effort.
a. 5-10%
B. 10-20%
c. 30-40%
d. 80-90%
34. Error guessing is a
a. Test verification techniques
B. Test execution techniques
c. Test control management techniques
d. Test data management technique
04 – Defect Management Marks: -10
Content of Chapter: -
4.1. Defect Classification, Defect
Management Process.
4.2. Defect Life Cycle, Defect Template.
4.3 Estimate Expected Impact of a Defect,Techniques for Finding Defects, Reporting a Defect.
04 – Defect Managem ent
1) Defect report is also useful for process improvement.
a. True
b. False
2)
Cost of the defect does not increase over the period of time.
a. True
b. False
3)
As a tester which of the following will come under product risk if you are testing an e-commerce
website?
a. Shortage of testers
b. Many changes in SRS that caused changes in test cases
c. Delay in fixing defects by development team
d. All of the above
4)
Defects generally fall into the following categories?
a. WRONG
b. MISSING
c. EXTRA
d. All the above
5)
How severely the bug is affecting the application is called as
a. Severity
b. Priority
c. Fix ability
d. Traceability
6)
Who determines the severity of bug?
a. Developer
b. Customer
c. Tester
d. All stakeholders
7)
A Plan to overcome the risk called as
a. Migration Plan
b. Master plan
c. Maintenance plan
d. Mitigation Plan
8)
Defect Management process does not include
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
What are the different types of risk may occur when you develop software?
a. Project risks
b. Technical risks
c. Business risks
d. All of the above
10)
Every risk has 100% likelihood.
a. Trueb
b. False
11)
What is associated with the Product Risk?
a. Control of test item
b. Negative consequences
c. non-availability of test environment
d. Test object
12)
The number of defects in a particular software is given by which metric
a. Defect removal rate
b. Defect density
c. Mean time to failure
d. Coverage metrics
13)
Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?
a. Uncertainty and Loss
b. Certainty and Profit
c. Staff size and Budget
d. Project Deadline and Budget
14)
Bug is same name of
a. Error
b. Incident
c. Mistake
d. Defect
15)
Test Conditions are derived from
a. test design
B. test cases
c. test data
d. specifications
16)
Maintenance testing is:
a. testing to maintain business advantage
b. testing a released system that has been changed
c. testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d. updating tests when the software has changed
17)
The defect Management process does not include
a. defect prevention
b. deliverable base-lining
c. management reporting
d. none of the above
18. Product Risk affects the quality or performance of the software.
a. true
B. false
19)
variance from product specifications is called?
a. report
b. requirement
c. defect
d. None of above
20)
Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.Is the above statement correct?
a. yes
b. no
21)
Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
a. severity
b. priority
c. fix ability
d. traceability
22)
Defects generally fall into the following categories?
a. wrong
b. missing
c. extra
d. all the above
23)
How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
a. severity
b. priority
c. fixability
d. traceability
24)
Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
a. true
b. false
25)
of information refers to protecting information from being modified by
unauthorized parties.
a. confidentiality
b. authentication
c. authorization
d. integrity
26)
looks for known security issues by using automated tools to match conditions
with known vulnerabilities.
a. discovery
B. vulnerability scan
c. security assessment
d. penetration test
is driven by an Audit or a Risk function to look at a specific control or compliance
issue.
a. security audit
B. vulnerability scan
c. vulnerability assessment
d. penetration test
28)
Builds upon Vulnerability Assessment by adding manual verification to confirm
exposure.
a. security audit
b. security assessment
c. vulnerability assessment
d. penetration test
29)
he word „Error‟ is synonymous with which of the following words?
a. Incident
B. Defect
c. Mistake
d. Bug
30)
Programmers make mistakes during coding. These mistakes are known as
a. Failures
B. Defects
c. Bugs
d. Errors
31)
Which of the following is not a part of bug report?
a. Test case
b. Output
c. Software Version
d. LOC
32)
Debugging is a two- step process that begins when you find an error as a result of a successful
test case. Step 1 is the determination of the exact nature and location of the suspected error
within the program. Step 2 consists of
a. viewing the error
B. locating the error
c. fixing the error
d. filing the error
05 – Testing Tools and Measurements Marks: -14
Content of Chapter: -
5.1 Manual Testing and Need forAutomated testing Tools
5.2 Advantages and Disadvantages of UsingTools
5.3 Selecting a Testing Tool
5.4 When to Use Automated test Tools,Testing Using Automated Tools.
5.5 Metrics and Measurement: Types ofMetrics, Product metrics and Process metrics, Object-oriented metrics in testing.
05 – Testing Tools and Measurements
1) Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software?
a) KLOC
b) Size of module
c) Function Points
d) None of the mentioned
2)
SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
3)
Management and Measurement, It will come under
A. CMM Level 1
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level 2
4)
Which metric is used to compare the Field Defects with the Test Defects?
a. Defect deduction percentage
b. Defect division percentage
c. Defect detection percentage
d. All of the above
5)
By collecting during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful
guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
6)
A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed
in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as
a. Process metric
b. Product Metric
c. Test metrics
7)
Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. It‟s come under the
A. CMM Level 2
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level5
What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?
1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 1, 3
9)
LoadRunner create load by running ……
a. load creator
B. virtual users
c. load user
d. none of the above
10)
A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
a. process metric
B. product metric
c. test metrics
11)
Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing. Is the above statement correct?
a. yes
B. no
12)
SPICE Means
a. software process improvement and capability determination
B. software process improvement and compatibility determination.
c. software process invention and compatibility determination.
d. software process improvement and control determination
13)
A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, Techniques and tools employed
in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system called as
a. process metric
B. product metric
c. test metrics
14)
Management and Measurement, It will come under
a. cmm level 1
B. cmm level 3
c. cmm level 4
d. cmm level 2
15)
Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the application is needed for Automation
testing.
a. false
B. true
When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a. a small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. the independent testing team
d. the vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
17)
Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a. test analysis and design
B. test implementation and execution
c. test closure activities
d. evaluating exit criteria and reporting
18)
Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a. KLOC
B. Function Points
c. Size of module
d. Software Metric
19)
If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in
a. LOC
B. FP
c. LOC and FP
d. None of the mentioned
20)
Risk exposure is given by which formula
a. It is the product of probability of occurrence of risk and its impact
B. It is the sum of probability of its occurrence and its impact
c. It is the standard deviation of the sum of it’s probability and it’s impact
d. None of the above
21)
Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a. Product risk
B. Project risk
c. Business risk
d. Programming risk
22)
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a. Client
B. Investor
c. Production team
d. Project manager